Hello, guys
I am thinking why the incidence rate could be treated as a nearly normally distributed parameter.
We know that the central limit theorem enables us to treat parameters like mean and risk as approximately normally distributed. How about incidence rate? It looks like the incidence rate is not a form of mean so we cannot directly apply the central limit theorem to it.
I know there is the proc stdrate to estimate the incidence rate, very nice. But I just want to dig deeper, to understand the statistic behind. Thank you.
Tom
Hi @TomHsiung, for a start have a look at the Poisson Distribution (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Poisson_distribution). It is the standard for independend (!) events.
Best
Markus
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